Below are answer explanations to the full-length English test of the 2nd released practice ACT for the ACT 2025.

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2025 ACT Practice Test 2 English Answer Explanations

Passage 1

Question 1, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is D: “multiday tournament.”

  • This question tests conciseness and redundancy, a core Knowledge of Language skill on the ACT. The sentence already establishes that the Choctaw Indian Fair takes place in central Mississippi and that it occurs every summer. Choice D is the least redundant because it removes unnecessary repetition and preserves only the essential information. Choice A (“multiday tournament in summer”) repeats the idea of summer already stated earlier in the sentence. Choice B (“multiday tournament in Mississippi”) redundantly restates the location. Choice C (“annual multiday tournament”) repeats the idea of “every summer.” The ACT consistently rewards answers that remove repeated information without sacrificing clarity.

Question 2, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “towa (ball)”.

  • This question tests punctuation of appositives. The word ball is a parenthetical definition of towa, so parentheses are the correct punctuation. Choice H cleanly signals that “ball” is explanatory, not essential to the sentence’s structure. Choice F misuses both a dash and parentheses together, which is grammatically incorrect. Choice G places a comma before the parentheses, creating unnecessary and incorrect punctuation. Choice J treats “ball” as a coordinate noun rather than a definition, which distorts the meaning. ACT grammar rules favor clean, standard punctuation for definitions.

Question 3, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is D: “sticks made”.

  • This question tests sentence structure and comma splices. The original version improperly joins two independent clauses with a comma, creating a run-on sentence. Choice D fixes this by reducing the second clause to a descriptive phrase (“sticks made of hardwood…”), which correctly modifies “kabocca.” Choice B creates a new independent clause but still leaves the sentence improperly joined. Choice C introduces an unnecessary contraction and informal tone while failing to fix the structural issue. The correct answer removes the grammatical error with the cleanest revision.

Question 4, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is J: “Delete the underlined portion.”

  • This question tests repetition across sentences. The following sentence already explains how players score using the towa, making the underlined sentence (“Kabocca are used to catch and throw the ball”) unnecessary. Deleting it improves flow without losing information. Choice G redundantly defines “towa,” which has already been defined. Choice H introduces irrelevant information about post height. Choice F keeps an unnecessary sentence. The ACT often rewards deletions when information is already clearly conveyed elsewhere.

Question 5, Given that all the choices are accurate, which one best introduces the paragraph? The correct answer is D: “Historically, stickball played an important role in resolving conflicts.”

  • This is a paragraph organization and topic sentence question. The paragraph focuses on how stickball functioned as a substitute for warfare and conflict resolution. Choice D directly previews that idea. Choice A is vague and lacks focus. Choice B introduces historical trivia that is not developed in the paragraph. Choice C shifts attention to tournament structure, which is irrelevant here. Effective introductions forecast the paragraph’s central idea.

Question 6, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “were almost no”.

  • This question tests subject–verb agreement and correct verb form. The subject “rules” is plural, so it requires “were,” not “was” or “has been.” Choice H correctly pairs the plural subject with the plural verb. Choice F uses “was,” which is incorrect. Choice G uses “has been,” which mismatches both tense and number. Choice J incorrectly pairs “was” with a plural noun. ACT grammar questions frequently hinge on identifying the true subject.

Question 7, Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most clearly uses specific details to support the sentence’s claim? The correct answer is C: “from one hundred feet to five miles.”

  • This question tests development and specificity, a Production of Writing skill. The sentence claims that field length varied greatly; Choice C supports that claim with precise, concrete measurements. Choice A restates the idea without adding detail. Choice B is vague and abstract. Choice D introduces an unrelated effect on spectators. The ACT favors answers that directly and quantitatively support claims.

Question 8, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “and”.

  • This question tests coordination vs. subordination. The sentence lists two parallel actions: players do not wear pads or helmets, and many play barefoot. The coordinating conjunction “and” correctly links these ideas. Choice F (“also”) creates a comma splice. Choice G (“in addition,”) incorrectly signals a transition between sentences rather than coordination within one. Choice J deletes necessary linkage, creating a fragment. Proper conjunction choice is critical on the ACT.

Question 9, The writer wants to add the following sentence… Where should it be placed? The correct answer is B: “Point B in Paragraph 2.”

  • This question tests logical placement of information. The sentence “Players cannot touch the ball with their hands” fits best where the rules and mechanics of stickball are being explained—specifically in Paragraph 2, which already discusses equipment and gameplay. Placing it at Point B keeps all rule-based information grouped together. Points A and D are too general or thematic, and Point C focuses on modern safety rules, not basic gameplay mechanics. ACT placement questions reward coherence and topical grouping.

Question 10, Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to provide an overview of a sport. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? The correct answer is F: “Yes, because it explains how Choctaw stickball is played and why it is important.”

  • This question tests recognizing an essay’s primary purpose. The preceding passage explains what Choctaw stickball is, how it is played, and why it matters culturally, which fits the goal of providing an overview of a sport. Choice G is incorrect because the essay does not argue a single historical function; it mentions conflict resolution as one aspect. Choice H is wrong because the fair is contextual, not the focus. Choice J incorrectly claims the essay centers on why the World Series was created, which it does not. The ACT expects you to identify the broad purpose, not isolate one detail.

Passage 2

Question 11, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests punctuation of appositive phrases. In the sentence, “Polish architect Jakub Szczęsny” correctly functions as an appositive identifying the subject, and the commas are placed appropriately. Choice B incorrectly inserts an extra comma after “architect,” breaking the noun phrase. Choice C omits a necessary comma before the appositive. Choice D removes all commas, which is incorrect because the name is nonessential information. The original version correctly follows standard appositive punctuation rules.

Question 12, Given that all the choices are accurate, which one sets up a direct contrast regarding the age of the two buildings? The correct answer is G: “a pre–World War II brick rooming house,”.

  • This question tests rhetorical contrast. The sentence contrasts two buildings, one old and one modern. Choice G explicitly signals age by referencing pre–World War II construction, creating a clear contrast with the contemporary apartment building. Choice F is vague and does not emphasize age. Choice H gives location information, not contrast. Choice J describes use, not era. ACT prefers answers that directly reinforce the rhetorical goal stated in the question.

Question 13, Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph most logical? The correct answer is C: “2, 3, 1.”

  • This question tests logical paragraph organization. Sentence 2 introduces the location and discovery of the gap, Sentence 3 explains Szczęsny’s idea for transforming it, and Sentence 1 works best as a concluding sentence describing the result of that process. Choice A leaves the paragraph less coherent. Choices B and D disrupt the cause-and-effect flow by introducing conclusions before motivations. The ACT rewards sequences that mirror how ideas naturally develop.

Question 14, Question 14, Which choice most precisely conveys the narrowness of the space? The correct answer is H: “sliver.”

  • This question tests word choice and precision. “Sliver” specifically conveys extreme narrowness, which best matches the context. Choice F (“spread”) is vague and even suggests openness. Choice G (“sample”) is unrelated to size. Choice J (“speck”) suggests smallness, not narrowness. ACT vocabulary questions reward words that match both denotation and connotation.

Question 15, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is B: “stay and,”.

  • This question tests parallel structure within a compound predicate. The sentence describes artists who “apply for a short stay and use the space….” Choice B correctly joins two verbs with a coordinating conjunction. Choice A incorrectly uses a comma splice. Choice C creates an unnecessary semicolon. Choice D omits needed coordination. Maintaining parallel verb forms is a common ACT grammar target.

Passage 3

Question 16, Given that the information is accurate, should the writer make this revision? The correct answer is H: “No, because the original more clearly suggests that nostalgia may be hindering the retirement of the penny.”

  • This question tests revision based on meaning and emphasis. The original wording highlights emotional attachment to pennies, reinforcing the essay’s argument that sentimentality—not practicality—keeps the penny in circulation. The proposed revision removes that emotional implication. Choice F misinterprets the revision’s effect. Choice G incorrectly claims nostalgia is made irrelevant. Choice J contradicts the original point. ACT revision questions focus on how wording affects argument strength.

Question 17, Which sequence of sentences presents the writer’s argument most logically? The correct answer is B: “1, 3, 2”.

  • This question tests logical sequencing of evidence. Sentence 1 introduces the general claim that pennies are costly. Sentence 3 provides specific cost-per-penny data. Sentence 2 then gives total annual cost, logically building from specific to aggregate. Choice A is less effective because it jumps between general and specific without progression. Choices C and D disrupt the argumentative buildup. The ACT favors sequences that escalate evidence logically.

Question 18, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “reach into the registers’”.

  • This question tests possessive nouns and prepositional phrases. Cashiers reach into multiple registers, so the plural possessive “registers’” is required. Choice F incorrectly inserts a comma. Choice G mismatches singular and plural. Choice H omits the possessive entirely. Identifying the true owner in a sentence is key on ACT grammar questions.

Question 19, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is D: “billions of cash transactions are made each year.”

  • This question tests conciseness. Choice D states the idea once, clearly and efficiently. Choice A repeats “each year” and “annually.” Choice B adds unnecessary explanation. Choice C redundantly uses both “yearly” and “annually.” The ACT consistently rewards answers that eliminate repetition without loss of meaning.

Question 20, If the writer were to delete the underlined portion (adjusting the punctuation as needed), the paragraph would primarily lose: The correct answer is F: “a suggestion that many proponents of keeping the penny in circulation may be motivated by self-interest.”

  • This question tests rhetorical purpose and implication, a Production of Writing skill. The underlined portion identifies zinc lobbyists and explains that zinc is the primary material used to make pennies. This detail subtly implies that some supporters of the penny may benefit financially from its continued production. Removing this information would eliminate that suggestion of self-interest. Choice G is incorrect because the paragraph never states how much money zinc miners earn. Choice H is wrong because the passage does not explain how zinc mining affects consumer prices. Choice J is incorrect because the paragraph still summarizes proponents’ arguments even without that detail; what would be lost is the motive behind those arguments. ACT questions like this often test whether students can recognize implied bias or rhetorical strategy.

Question 21, Should the writer make this addition here? The correct answer is C: “No, because it is unrelated to the writer’s rebuttal of the argument made by proponents of pennies.”

  • This question tests relevance and cohesion. The proposed sentence discusses Americans’ reactions to inflation broadly, but the surrounding paragraph specifically rebuts the claim that eliminating the penny would raise prices, using Canada as evidence. The new sentence neither strengthens nor directly addresses that rebuttal. Choice A is incorrect because the sentence does not undermine the proponents’ argument; it merely states a general attitude about inflation. Choice B is wrong because the sentence does not discuss eliminating the penny at all. Choice D misrepresents the sentence’s implication. The ACT rewards answers that keep paragraphs tightly focused on their argumentative purpose.

Question 22, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is G: “it’s a wash; overall, consumers pay no more or no less than”.

  • This question tests apostrophe usage and comparative structure. “It’s” is the contraction for “it is,” which is required here; “its” would incorrectly indicate possession. Additionally, the phrase “no more or no less than” correctly completes the comparison. Choice F incorrectly uses “its,” creating a grammatical error. Choice H uses “then” instead of “than,” which is incorrect in comparisons. Choice J repeats both of those errors. ACT grammar questions frequently hinge on small but critical distinctions between homophones and contractions.

Question 23, Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? The correct answer is B: “have been reluctant to act.”

  • This question tests tone and register. The essay maintains a formal, analytical tone appropriate for an argumentative essay. Choice B preserves that tone. Choice C (“haven’t closed the deal”) and Choice D (“haven’t ratified a thing”) are informal and conversational, undermining the essay’s seriousness. Choice A is vague and less precise than Choice B. ACT tone questions often eliminate options that sound slangy, sarcastic, or overly casual.

Question 24, Which choice is clearest and most precise in context? The correct answer is G: “negligible.”

  • This question tests precision of word choice. The sentence argues that the penny’s value is extremely small. “Negligible” precisely conveys that idea. Choice F (“defective”) is vague and suggests malfunction rather than lack of value. Choice H (“remote”) refers to distance or likelihood, not worth. Choice J (“invalid”) suggests illegitimacy rather than insignificance. ACT vocabulary questions favor words that match both the factual meaning and argumentative intent.

Question 25, Which choice provides the most effective conclusion by restating the main claims of the essay’s argument? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests effective conclusions. The existing conclusion reiterates the essay’s two core claims: that retiring the penny would save money at the U.S. Mint and give time back to workers. Choice B introduces pollution and purchasing power, neither of which were central claims. Choice C incorrectly shifts focus to bargaining power. Choice D introduces “coin clutter,” which was not emphasized earlier. ACT conclusions should synthesize—not introduce—ideas.

Passage 4

Question 26, Which transition word, if any, is most logical in context? The correct answer is J: “team”.

  • This question tests logical transitions. The sentence simply adds another observation about the team’s behavior; no contrast or concession is being made. Choices G (“nevertheless”) and H (“however”) incorrectly imply opposition to the previous sentence. Choice F keeps unnecessary punctuation. Choice J correctly removes the transition entirely, resulting in a smooth, additive progression. ACT often tests whether transitions are truly needed or rhetorically justified.

Question 27, Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most effectively leads the reader from the preceding sentence to the information that follows? The correct answer is B: “Thanks to experience she’d gained on a formal archaeological land dig,”.

  • This question tests logical bridges between ideas. The paragraph shifts from Frost’s illustration skills to her understanding of archaeological rigor. Choice B explicitly connects her prior experience to her insight about systematic excavation. Choice A is vague. Choice C emphasizes diving rather than methodology. Choice D introduces an irrelevant interest. ACT rewards transitions that clearly explain why a new idea follows logically.

Question 28, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “its”.

  • This question tests possessive pronouns. The sentence refers to the ship’s contents, requiring the possessive “its.” Choice F incorrectly uses “its’,” which is not a word. Choice G (“their”) creates a number mismatch. Choice H (“it’s”) incorrectly uses a contraction. ACT grammar frequently tests possessive vs. contraction errors.

Question 29, Which choice is clearest and most grammatically acceptable in context? The correct answer is C: “scholars”.

  • This question tests pronoun clarity and precision. “Scholars” clearly identifies the group holding the mistaken belief, eliminating ambiguity. Choice A (“most of them”) is vague. Choice B (“those individuals”) is wordy and imprecise. Choice D (“they”) creates a pronoun with an unclear antecedent. ACT prefers explicit nouns when pronouns risk confusion.

Question 30, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is F: “No Change.”

  • This question tests redundancy within descriptive phrases. The original wording already efficiently conveys time, location, and subject without unnecessary repetition. Choices G, H, and J each repeat information already present elsewhere in the sentence or paragraph. Because the original is already concise and clear, the best choice is to leave it unchanged. On the ACT, “No Change” is correct when alternatives introduce redundancy rather than eliminate it.

Question 31, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is D: “Frost’s team recovered.”

  • This question tests sentence structure and verb tense, specifically avoiding sentence fragments. The original sentence begins with a dependent introductory phrase (“During that time”) and requires a complete independent clause to follow. Choice D provides a clear subject (“Frost’s team”) and a past-tense verb (“recovered”), forming a grammatically complete sentence. Choice A leaves a fragment because the verb form does not properly attach to a subject. Choice B creates an awkward prepositional phrase that fails to complete the sentence. Choice C uses a participle (“recovering”), which again results in a fragment. ACT grammar questions frequently target incomplete sentences disguised by introductory phrases.

Question 32, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “were”.

  • This question tests subject–verb agreement. The subject of the sentence is “remnants,” which is plural, so the verb must also be plural. Choice H correctly matches the plural subject. Choice F (“was set to be”) incorrectly uses a singular verb. Choice G (“was ready to be”) also mismatches number. Choice J (“was”) repeats the same error. ACT questions often require identifying the true grammatical subject, not just the nearest noun.

Question 33, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is D: “history was”.

  • This question tests conciseness and redundancy. The sentence already conveys the idea that history is both revealed and made; adding “simultaneously” or “concurrently” repeats the meaning of “at the same time,” which appears earlier in the sentence. Choice D removes the redundancy while preserving meaning. Choices A, B, and C all repeat the same idea using different words, which the ACT penalizes. The most concise option that keeps the sentence clear is correct.

Question 34, If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at: The correct answer is F: “Point A in Paragraph 1″.

  • This question tests logical placement based on relevance and flow. The added sentence highlights Frost’s dedication to diving and exploration, which directly supports the opening paragraph’s focus on her early enthusiasm for underwater exploration. Placing it at Point A deepens the reader’s understanding of Frost before the narrative shifts to her professional achievements. Choices G and H disrupt the discussion of archaeological implications. Choice J places the sentence too late, after the essay has already moved into detailed accomplishments. ACT placement questions reward alignment with paragraph focus.

Question 35, uppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to explore how a particular field of study has changed over the years. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? The correct answer is C: “No, because it focuses instead on Frost and some of her most important contributions to maritime archaeology”.

  • This question tests recognition of an essay’s central focus. While the essay mentions the birth of maritime archaeology, it does so through the lens of Honor Frost’s individual work rather than tracing the field’s evolution over time. Choice A is incorrect because the essay does not discuss recent controversies. Choice B mistakes naming other figures for analyzing change. Choice D incorrectly limits Frost’s contributions to pre-maritime archaeology work. ACT purpose questions require distinguishing between individual biography and field-wide analysis.

Passage 5

Question 36, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is F: “No Change”.

  • This question tests proper use of participial phrases. The phrase “peering through light-polluted skies” correctly modifies “astronomer,” the noun that immediately precedes it. The commas in the original sentence correctly separate the descriptive phrase. Choice G incorrectly inserts commas that break the modifier from its noun. Choice H incorrectly uses a colon. Choice J misplaces the comma, creating confusion about what is being modified. The original version follows standard modifier placement rules.

Question 37, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “collapse, stars form”.

  • This question tests sentence completion and clause structure. The original sentence is a fragment because it begins with “When” but never completes the thought. Choice C fixes the fragment by converting the dependent clause into a complete sentence with two independent clauses joined by a comma. Choice B creates an awkward infinitive structure. Choice D introduces coordination that changes the emphasis of the sentence. ACT often tests whether students can identify and repair dependent-clause fragments.

Question 38, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “nebula, home to thousands of young stars,”.

  • This question tests appositive phrases and comma usage. Choice J correctly treats “home to thousands of young stars” as a nonessential appositive describing the nebula. Choice F incorrectly separates clauses with commas, creating a run-on. Choice G unnecessarily inserts “and,” creating coordination where none is needed. Choice H adds an extra verb, overcomplicating the sentence. ACT grammar questions reward clean, economical sentence structures.

Question 39, This sentence would most logically be placed at: The correct answer is D: “Point D.”

  • This question tests logical progression of information. The added sentence gives factual background about the nebula’s distance and composition, which best fits after the nebula has already been introduced and identified as a star-forming region. Placing it earlier would interrupt the narrative flow of locating Orion. Point D allows the information to deepen understanding at the moment the nebula becomes the paragraph’s focus. ACT placement questions prioritize coherence and reader comprehension.

Question 40, Which transition word is most logical in context? The correct answer is J: “So,”.

  • This question tests logical transitions between ideas. The narrator explains difficulty seeing the nebula and then describes switching eyepieces and using averted vision. “So” correctly signals cause and effect: because visibility was poor, the narrator changed strategy. Choice F lacks a clear logical link. Choice G (“Similarly”) implies comparison rather than consequence. Choice H (“Besides”) suggests addition, not reasoning. ACT transition questions hinge on identifying relationships between sentences.

Question 41, The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted? The correct answer is B: “Kept, because it explains the principle that allowed the narrator to see the nebula more clearly.”

  • This question tests relevance and explanatory value. The preceding sentence explains the principle of averted vision, which is essential for understanding why the narrator’s strategy works in the following sentence. Without it, the narrator’s success would seem abrupt and unexplained. Choice A is incorrect because the sentence does not explain the narrator’s capability, only the technique. Choice C is wrong because the level of technical detail is appropriate for a reflective informational narrative. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence directly supports the paragraph’s main point. ACT revision questions often hinge on whether a sentence provides necessary conceptual grounding.

Question 42, Which choice is clearest and most precise in context? The correct answer is F: “No Change”.

  • This question tests precision of diction. The word “yielded” accurately conveys that the narrator’s peripheral vision produced or resulted in a clearer view. Choice G (“emanated”) suggests something radiating outward, which does not fit the context. Choice H (“emulated”) means imitated, which is incorrect. Choice J (“eliminated”) directly contradicts the meaning. ACT vocabulary questions favor words that precisely match the cause-and-effect relationship in context.

Question 43, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is A: “No Change”.

  • This question tests correct plural possessive formation. The phrase “birds’ eggs” correctly shows possession by multiple birds. Choice B (“bird’s eggs”) incorrectly suggests a single bird. Choice C (“birds eggs”) omits the apostrophe entirely. Choice D (“bird eggs’”) misplaces the possessive marker. ACT grammar questions frequently test possessives in descriptive comparisons.

Question 44, Which sentence would best conclude the paragraph and the essay by referring back to the opening paragraph? The correct answer is J: “Observing these features made my winter trek outdoors worthwhile, teaching me that a change in focus is sometimes helpful to see more clearly.”

  • This question tests effective conclusions and thematic coherence. Choice J refers back to the narrator’s initial uncertainty and effort while also reinforcing the essay’s metaphorical theme about perspective. Choice F introduces historical trivia unrelated to the narrator’s experience. Choice G shifts into technical advice, changing tone. Choice H redirects attention away from the essay’s emotional and narrative arc. ACT conclusions should echo the introduction while reinforcing the central insight.

Question 45, Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to write an essay about a personal experience with astronomy. Would this essay accomplish that goal? The correct answer is B: “Yes, because the narrator describes a stargazing session from start to finish, from setting up the telescope to observing an actual constellation.”

  • This question tests recognition of overall purpose. The essay clearly recounts a complete personal experience, including preparation, difficulty, technique, and success. Choice A is too broad and exaggerates the scope. Choice C incorrectly claims the focus is star formation rather than personal experience. Choice D mischaracterizes the essay as instructional rather than narrative. ACT purpose questions require evaluating the essay as a whole, not isolating individual informational elements.

Passage 6

Question 46, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “Pittsburgh resident Eric Singer”.

  • This question tests unnecessary comma usage. The phrase “Pittsburgh resident” is an essential descriptor of Eric Singer, so it should not be set off by commas. Choice F incorrectly inserts commas that separate essential information. Choice G overuses commas, breaking the noun phrase. Choice H incorrectly treats “Eric Singer” as nonessential. ACT punctuation questions often hinge on distinguishing essential vs. nonessential modifiers.

Question 47, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “mallets is”.

  • This question tests subject–verb agreement with collective nouns. The subject is “the set of mallets,” which is singular because “set” is the head noun. Therefore, the singular verb “is” is required. Choice A incorrectly uses a plural verb. Choice B mismatches singular and plural. Choice D incorrectly identifies “mallet” as the subject. ACT agreement questions frequently test whether students can identify the true grammatical subject.

Question 48, Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? The correct answer is J: “play an entire song”.

  • This question tests tone consistency. The essay maintains an informative, professional tone. Choice J preserves that tone. Choice F includes an informal aside (“get this”), which weakens seriousness. Choices G and H add slang and exaggeration that clash with the essay’s style. ACT tone questions typically eliminate options that introduce casual or conversational language.

Question 49, For the sake of the logic and cohesion of this paragraph, Sentence 3 should be placed: The correct answer is A: “where it is now.”

  • This question tests paragraph cohesion and logical sequencing. Sentence 3 contrasts a traditional xylophone with the XyloBot, which works best after the standard xylophone is introduced and before the robotic mechanism is explained. Moving it would disrupt the comparison structure. Choices B, C, and D all weaken the contrast by separating it from the ideas it connects. ACT organization questions reward clear comparative structure.

Question 50, Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to describe a designer’s inspiration that led to a new invention. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? The correct answer is J: “No, because while it mentions Singer’s love of robots and music, it is more focused on describing his artistry and the designs of his robotic instruments.”

  • This question tests alignment between stated purpose and actual focus. The essay emphasizes what Singer has built and how the instruments function, not the specific inspiration that led to their creation. Choice F overstates the role of background details. Choice G incorrectly claims a broader technological impact. Choice H mischaracterizes the instruments as non-inventions. ACT purpose questions require identifying what the essay actually develops, not what it briefly mentions.

Additional ACT practice test answer explanations