Below are answer explanations to the 4th full-length Reading test of the released practice Digital ACT test.

The 4th Digital ACT Reading test questions are explained below. Other answer explanations in this series of articles:

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Answer Explanations to the 4th Digital ACT Reading Practice Test

Passage I – “Keija Parssinen and Kate Maloy”

Question 1, “The main purpose of the first paragraph of Passage A (lines 1–6) is to:” The correct answer is C: “help establish the narrator’s identity as an expatriate.”

The first paragraph introduces the narrator’s childhood experiences with frequent travel and explains that the place she considered home differed from the place her family was originally from. She explicitly identifies herself as an expatriate child, making Choice C correct. Choice A is too narrow because the paragraph does not identify the specific locations where the family lived. Choice B incorrectly suggests that the narrator was frustrated by leaving home, whereas she describes the routines of departure as familiar and easy. Choice D refers to the family’s permanent departure from Saudi Arabia in 1992, an event discussed much later in the passage rather than in the opening paragraph.

Question 2, “Which of the following statements most effectively summarizes the main point of the fifth paragraph of Passage A (lines 34–41)?” The correct answer is J: “The familiarity of home is more desirable to the narrator than the pleasures of vacation.”

In the fifth paragraph, the narrator explains that she eagerly anticipated returning to Saudi Arabia after her family’s vacations. Although she enjoyed traveling, she felt a stronger attachment to the desert environment she had known since birth. Choice J correctly captures this preference for the familiarity of home over the pleasures of vacation. Choice F incorrectly suggests that she felt homesick for California when leaving, when the opposite was true. Choice G focuses on excitement fading during vacations, which is not the paragraph’s main point. Choice H incorrectly suggests that the narrator preferred coastal environments to the desert, contradicting her expressed attachment to Saudi Arabia.

Question 3, “Which of the following quotations from Passage B most effectively encapsulates a main theme of the passage?” The correct answer is B: “I have a feeling that this is not my last house” (lines 64–65).

Passage B focuses on the narrator’s lifelong pattern of moving from place to place and her growing acceptance that relocation will likely remain part of her life. Choice B captures this theme by expressing her expectation that she will move again despite having recently settled in Oregon. Choice A describes one particular period of her life rather than the broader pattern. Choice C introduces a theatrical metaphor that supports her discussion of unexpected changes but does not summarize the passage’s central idea. Choice D addresses her lack of control over childhood moves, which represents only one aspect of her larger experiences with relocation.

Question 4, “In the context of Passage B, the fourth paragraph (lines 73–84) mainly serves to:” The correct answer is G: “illuminate the narrator’s discussion of peripeteia and anagnorisis by providing details relating to her own life.”

In the preceding paragraph, the narrator defines peripeteia as an unexpected reversal and anagnorisis as a revelation or lesson. The fourth paragraph then explains how her own relocations often involved a similar progression from unexpected challenges to personal discoveries. Choice G correctly identifies how the paragraph illustrates these concepts through the narrator’s experiences. Choice F introduces unsupported details about college and career decisions. Choice H incorrectly suggests that the narrator preferred living alone, while Choice J contradicts her acknowledgment that she has moved frequently. The paragraph’s primary purpose is to connect the abstract concepts to her personal history.

Question 5, “The narrator of Passage B makes clear that the moves she chose to make while she was in her twenties and thirties often led to:” The correct answer is C: “unexpected challenges.”

The narrator explains that during her twenties and early thirties, she frequently moved because a new location, job, or relationship seemed more appealing. However, these decisions often produced circumstances that differed from her expectations, forcing her to confront new difficulties. Choice C correctly summarizes these unexpected challenges. Choice A emphasizes opportunities rather than the difficulties she describes. Choice B incorrectly suggests that her moves consistently produced unusually good fortune. Choice D focuses on excessive caution, whereas the narrator describes making frequent, sometimes impulsive decisions. Her experiences illustrate how voluntary changes can result in unforeseen problems and lessons.

Question 6, “Based on the last paragraph of Passage A (lines 42–48) and the last paragraph of Passage B (lines 85–93), which of the following statements best captures a difference in the way the narrators describe the prospect of moving away?” The correct answer is G: “The narrator of Passage A focuses more on the regret she felt upon leaving; the narrator of Passage B focuses more on the apprehension she felt upon going somewhere new.”

The final paragraph of Passage A describes the narrator’s sadness as she realizes that her family’s departure from Saudi Arabia will be permanent. She reflects on experiences she will never have there again, emphasizing regret and loss. In contrast, Passage B describes the narrator’s childhood anxiety about arriving in unfamiliar places, meeting new classmates, and adjusting to different schools. Choice G correctly identifies this distinction. Choice F incorrectly emphasizes the siblings in Passage A, while Choices H and J describe attitudes and details that are not central to the final paragraphs. The primary contrast is between sadness about leaving and anxiety about arriving.

Question 7, “Based on the passages, both narrators attribute their childhood moves to:” The correct answer is A: “changes related to their fathers’ work.”

Both passages connect the narrators’ childhood relocations to their fathers’ employment. In Passage A, the narrator’s family lived in Saudi Arabia until her father took early retirement, prompting their permanent departure. In Passage B, the narrator explains that her father’s company repeatedly transferred him to different branches, requiring the family to move. Choice A correctly identifies this shared cause. Choice B introduces dissatisfaction with schooling, which neither passage presents as the reason for moving. Choice C incorrectly attributes the moves to pressure from extended family members. Choice D suggests that the parents were motivated by a desire for adventure, whereas employment circumstances are the relevant explanation.

Question 8, “Which of the following quotations from Passage A serves as the most direct example of anagnorisis, as it is defined in Passage B?” The correct answer is F: “I learned how to leave home from a young age” (line 1).

Passage B defines anagnorisis as a revelation, discovery, or lesson. Choice F directly describes something the narrator learned through her childhood experiences: how to leave home. This makes it the clearest example of anagnorisis. Choice G recalls the family’s travel routines but does not identify a lesson or discovery. Choice H discusses the family’s geographical background without emphasizing a realization. Choice J describes how the children arranged themselves during flights, providing a specific memory rather than an example of learning. Choice F most directly reflects the definition established in Passage B.

Question 9, “Based on the passages, the narrators’ perspectives of home differ in that:” The correct answer is D: “the Passage A narrator feels deeply connected to a single place, whereas the Passage B narrator finds it natural to move from place to place.”

The narrator of Passage A expresses a strong emotional connection to Saudi Arabia, the place she considered home throughout her childhood. In contrast, the narrator of Passage B has moved dozens of times and has come to accept relocation as a recurring feature of her life. Choice D accurately describes this difference. Choice A incorrectly suggests that Passage A defines home primarily through family and that Passage B bases it on career decisions. Choice B mischaracterizes the importance of birthplace and international travel. Choice C reverses the narrators’ attitudes by suggesting that Passage A feels at home everywhere while Passage B prefers remaining near her childhood home.

Passage II – “Great Zimbabwe”

Question 10, “The passage most strongly suggests that the stone walls of Great Zimbabwe still stand today in part because the Great Zimbabweans built the walls with:” The correct answer is F: “layers of stone that gradually recessed.”

The second paragraph explains that Great Zimbabwe’s builders placed granite blocks in layers, positioning each successive layer slightly farther inward to create a stabilizing slope. This technique helped the walls maintain their structural integrity without mortar. Choice F correctly identifies this construction method. Choice G incorrectly suggests that the layers became wider, which would not match the inward slope described. Choice H introduces interlocking curved stones, a feature not identified as the source of stability. Choice J contradicts the passage’s explicit statement that the walls were constructed without mortar.

Question 11, “The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 36–44) is to:” The correct answer is A: “summarize accepted assumptions about the Great Zimbabwean society.”

The third paragraph explains what scholars believe about the society that constructed Great Zimbabwe, including its possible economic organization, estimated population, and division between elites and commoners. Although the author acknowledges that much remains unknown, the paragraph summarizes scholarly conclusions about the civilization. Choice A correctly identifies this purpose. Choice B incorrectly emphasizes population growth over time, which is not the paragraph’s focus. Choice C introduces a comparison with other Bantu-speaking populations that the paragraph does not make. Choice D suggests that the paragraph presents competing theories about social organization, whereas it primarily describes a set of prevailing interpretations.

Question 12, “The passage indicates that, compared to other stone complexes on the Zimbabwean plateau, the stone complex of Great Zimbabwe is notable because of its:” The correct answer is G: “scale.”

The opening paragraph states that Great Zimbabwe is distinguished from hundreds of similar complexes by the enormous size of its structures. The author emphasizes walls reaching 36 feet in height and extending approximately 820 feet, making the site particularly impressive. Choice G (“scale”) correctly refers to this extraordinary size. Choice F is incorrect because the passage indicates that Great Zimbabwe was neither the first nor the last complex constructed in the region. Choice H (“opulence”) suggests lavish decoration or wealth, which is not identified as its defining architectural characteristic. Choice J (“ingenuity”) refers to creativity or engineering skill rather than the feature the author specifically emphasizes.

Question 13, “It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage that the Great Zimbabweans chose granite to build their stone walls in part because granite:” The correct answer is C: “splits into even slabs.”

The passage explains that granite naturally separates into even slabs and can be broken into portable pieces, making it a convenient building material. Choice C directly reflects this characteristic and explains why the builders would have selected granite for their walls. Choice A incorrectly suggests that granite was lighter than other available stones, which the passage does not establish. Choice B introduces a comparison of surface smoothness that is not discussed. Choice D identifies color variation, but the passage does not suggest that color influenced the selection of granite. The material’s ability to separate into manageable, regularly shaped pieces best explains its usefulness.

Question 14, “As it is used in line 27, the word fitted most nearly means:” The correct answer is J: “assembled.”

The passage states that Great Zimbabwe’s walls were “fitted” without mortar by stacking stones in carefully arranged layers. In this context, “fitted” refers to the process of putting the stones together to construct the walls. Choice J (“assembled”) most accurately expresses this meaning. Choice F (“matched”) suggests pairing similar objects rather than building a structure. Choice G (“qualified”) refers to meeting requirements or possessing particular abilities. Choice H (“equipped”) generally means supplying something with necessary materials or tools. None captures the construction process as precisely as “assembled.”

Question 15, “Based on the passage, the author would most likely agree that, over time, the Great Zimbabweans’ technique for wall building became:” The correct answer is C: “more sophisticated.”

The second paragraph explains that early walls were assembled using rough blocks and sometimes incorporated existing landscape features. Over time, builders refined their techniques, producing walls with more closely fitted stones and smoother, more uniform surfaces. Choice C correctly identifies this development as an increase in sophistication. Choice A is unsupported because the passage does not establish that later construction required less labor. Choice B contradicts the increasing precision of the stonework. Choice D introduces collaboration among builders, which the passage does not discuss. The evidence specifically indicates improvements in construction skill and precision.

Question 16, “Based on the passage, scholars would most likely agree that the stone walls of Great Zimbabwe were built to serve as:” The correct answer is H: “symbols of the elites’ power.”

The passage explains that although Great Zimbabwe’s massive walls may initially appear defensive, scholars believe they primarily represented political and social authority. They separated royal families from commoners and emphasized the ruling class’s elevated status. Choice H correctly identifies this symbolic purpose. Choice F focuses on military defense, an interpretation the passage explicitly questions. Choice G introduces religious worship, which is not presented as the walls’ purpose. Choice J suggests that the walls were simply cattle enclosures, but the passage emphasizes their role in displaying elite authority and maintaining royal privacy.

Question 17, “According to the passage, how many bird sculptures have been found in the ruins of Great Zimbabwe?” The correct answer is C: “8.”

The final paragraph explicitly identifies eight soapstone bird sculptures discovered among the ruins of Great Zimbabwe. Choice C is therefore correct. Choice A (5), Choice B (6), and Choice D (16) are incorrect because none matches the number provided in the passage. The number sixteen appears in the same paragraph, but it refers to the sculptures’ average height in inches rather than the number discovered. Distinguishing between the quantity of sculptures and their physical dimensions is the key to answering this question.

Question 18, “The passage author mentions the flag of modern Zimbabwe mainly to:” The correct answer is G: “emphasize the lasting significance of the bird sculptures of Great Zimbabwe.”

The passage concludes by explaining that the ancient soapstone bird sculptures remain important symbols and appear on Zimbabwe’s modern national flag. Choice G correctly identifies how this detail emphasizes their continuing cultural significance. Choice F is incorrect because the author explicitly states that the sculptures’ original meaning remains uncertain. Choice H incorrectly suggests that the flag establishes when the sculptures became important, although their origins date to Great Zimbabwe’s earlier civilization. Choice J introduces repeated changes in symbolism, which the passage does not describe. The modern flag demonstrates the enduring importance of these ancient artistic objects.

Passage III – “The Sea of Information”

Question 19, “It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the passage author would most likely regard which of the following research documents as containing only what she calls ‘information’?” The correct answer is D: “A diagram of a town’s demographics.”

The author distinguishes factual information from the emotionally engaging qualities of storytelling. She explains that research documents can provide useful facts, but information alone does not create the imaginative or emotional experience of fiction. Choice D, a diagram showing demographic statistics, would primarily present factual data without the narrative elements the author values. Choice A, a writer’s diary, could contain personal experiences and emotions. Choice B, correspondence between individuals, could reveal relationships and emotional exchanges. Choice C, a historical political speech, could use persuasive language and imagery. These other sources could contain elements extending beyond factual information.

Question 20, “In lines 34–41, the passage author most nearly indicates that facts can help evoke emotion if the facts:” The correct answer is H: “appeal to a reader’s senses.”

The author explains that facts can support emotional responses when they communicate texture, tone, and sensory details. Such information allows readers to imagine an experience rather than simply understand it intellectually. Choice H correctly identifies the importance of appealing to the senses. Choice F is too narrow because facts do not have to describe major historical events to produce emotion. Choice G suggests that introducing an unfamiliar experience is sufficient, whereas the author’s emphasis is on how details are presented. Choice J focuses on disproving previous claims, which relates to argumentation rather than the sensory and emotional effects of fiction.

Question 21, “In the context of the passage, the main purpose of the quotation from Hard Times (lines 73–78) is to:” The correct answer is B: “provide an example of factual information that is potentially unsatisfying and lifeless.”

The quotation from Dickens’s Hard Times describes a horse through a technical list of physical characteristics, including its teeth, diet, and hooves. The author uses this example to illustrate how information can be accurate yet fail to convey the emotional richness of an experience. Choice B correctly identifies this purpose. Choice A treats the quotation as a useful definition rather than an illustration of the limitations of factual description. Choice C focuses on Professor Gradgrind’s teaching methods, which are not the author’s central concern. Choice D suggests that the passage demonstrates drawing inferences from facts, whereas it emphasizes what facts alone cannot communicate.

Question 22, “The passage author most strongly suggests that the central element of fiction is primarily derived from:” The correct answer is J: “imagery and the qualities of language.”

Near the end of the passage, the author identifies emotion as the central element of fiction and explains that it arises from powerful images and the expressive qualities of language, including diction, rhythm, structure, and metaphor. Choice J accurately reflects this argument. Choice F refers to emotions being blocked or suppressed, which the author presents as a potential effect of excessive information rather than the source of fiction’s emotional power. Choice G incorrectly suggests that fiction depends on distorting facts. Choice H directly contradicts the author’s distinction between emotionally compelling storytelling and factual explanation.

Question 23, “According to the passage, being in the company of a group of scholars led the passage author to have questions about:” The correct answer is D: “her definition of research.”

The author explains that spending time with scholars made her realize that what she had previously considered research was relatively superficial compared with scholarly investigation. This experience prompted her to reconsider what research meant and how her own approach differed from that of historians and other scholars. Choice D correctly identifies this realization. Choice A introduces concerns about traditional methods of fiction writing, which are not the focus of this experience. Choice B suggests that she questioned collaborative research, which the passage does not discuss. Choice C focuses on her position within the scholarly group rather than her understanding of research itself.

Question 24, “The passage author indicates which of the following details about the setting of her fiction?” The correct answer is G: “Most of her fiction is set in the past.”

The author explicitly states that most of her fiction takes place in the past and incorporates historical materials. Choice G directly reflects this statement. Choice F incorrectly claims that most of her fiction is set in the present. Choice H suggests that her settings are unclear because she combines historical and contemporary elements, which the passage does not establish. Choice J incorrectly suggests that the historical setting depends on the depth of her research. Although the author discusses how she researches past events, she identifies the historical setting as a general characteristic of her writing.

Question 25, “When the passage author states that she imagined the Williamsburg sugar factory as background, she most nearly means that she:” The correct answer is B: “focused more on understanding the experiences a person may have had within the factory than on the factory itself.”

The author explains that she researched the Williamsburg sugar factory to imagine what it would have felt like for an individual to work and move through that environment. The factory’s historical details were important primarily because they helped establish the setting for a person’s experience. Choice B correctly identifies this distinction. Choice A incorrectly emphasizes comparing general sugar production with one specific factory. Choice C introduces a comparison between industrial growth and the factory that the passage does not make. Choice D suggests that the author focused on workers’ relationships outside the factory, which is not discussed.

Question 26, “The passage author uses the phrases ‘pouring in’ (line 64) and ‘bubbling up’ (line 65) primarily to indicate:” The correct answer is G: “that she feels inundated by information.”

The author describes information arriving from daily news and library research through water imagery, comparing the accumulation of facts to streams flowing around her. She explicitly states that she felt as though she were drowning in information. Choice G correctly captures this sense of being overwhelmed. Choice F suggests that the main difficulty was narrowing her research focus, rather than managing the sheer volume of information. Choice H introduces anxiety about writing news reports, which the passage does not discuss. Choice J emphasizes convenient access to information, overlooking the negative emotional effect conveyed by the imagery.

Question 27, “As it is used in line 79, the phrase caught up in most nearly means:” The correct answer is D: “lost in.”

The author explains that she became so absorbed in collecting factual details that she temporarily lost sight of the emotional and imaginative qualities essential to fiction. In this context, “caught up in” means becoming deeply absorbed or mentally lost in an activity. Choice D most accurately expresses this meaning. Choice A (“recovering from”) suggests overcoming a previous difficulty. Choice B (“dreaming of”) implies imagining or desiring something rather than becoming absorbed in it. Choice C (“remiss in”) refers to neglecting a responsibility. Choice D best captures the author’s experience of becoming consumed by factual research.

Passage IV – “All Men Can’t Jump”

Question 28, “Which of the following statements best summarizes the results of the Wales Man vs. Horse Marathon over the time period described in the passage?” The correct answer is F: “Horses won every year except 2004 and 2007, when humans won.”

The passage explains that horses defeated human competitors for the first 24 years of the race, beginning in 1980. In 2004, Huw Lobb became the first human winner, and in 2007, two human competitors finished ahead of the horses. Choice F correctly summarizes these results. Choice G overlooks the human victories in 2007. Choice H incorrectly suggests that horses continued winning until 2007 and fails to acknowledge the 2004 victory. Choice J incorrectly claims that humans won every year after 2004, which the passage does not establish. Choice F accurately identifies the two years in which humans won during the period discussed.

Question 29, “Evidence in the last paragraph (lines 73–81) primarily serves to support which of the following claims?” The correct answer is B: “Humans are capable of running greater distances than other large mammals.”

The final paragraph compares the distances that various animals can sustain with the distances routinely completed by human runners. While hunting dogs, wolves, hyenas, and horses generally cover considerably shorter distances, humans regularly complete marathons and ultramarathons. Choice B correctly identifies the claim supported by these comparisons. Choice A incorrectly generalizes that large mammals have greater endurance than other animals, which is not the paragraph’s point. Choice C concerns running speeds rather than total distances. Choice D introduces training as the reason for human endurance, but the paragraph does not establish training as the cause of the difference.

Question 30, “According to the passage, humans’ two-legged stability is most directly attributed to their:” The correct answer is G: “big gluteus maximus muscles.”

The passage explicitly states that humans have large gluteus maximus muscles that help maintain stability while running on two legs. Choice G directly identifies this adaptation. Choice F refers to strong Achilles tendons, which help store and release elastic energy during running rather than primarily maintaining balance. Choice H identifies slow-twitch muscle fibers, which support endurance by resisting fatigue. Choice J refers to torso structure, but the passage emphasizes the counter-rotation of the torso and hips rather than torso length. Although multiple anatomical features contribute to running ability, the gluteus maximus muscles are specifically associated with two-legged stability.

Question 31, “According to the passage, the galloping range of animals such as horses and dogs is limited primarily as a consequence of their:” The correct answer is D: “inability to cool themselves adequately while running fast.”

The passage explains that animals such as horses and dogs depend heavily on panting to regulate body temperature. However, panting becomes difficult while galloping because the rapid, shallow breathing required would interfere with respiration. Consequently, these animals can maintain their fastest speeds only for relatively short periods before overheating. Choice D correctly identifies this limitation. Choice A focuses on torso movement, which the passage discusses as a human adaptation. Choice B refers to joint size rather than temperature regulation. Choice C identifies slow-twitch muscle fibers, which contribute to endurance rather than limiting an animal’s ability to gallop.

Question 32, “In the context of the passage, the passage author uses the description ‘vast throngs’ (line 78) most nearly to:” The correct answer is G: “emphasize that many people commonly run long distances.”

The phrase “vast throngs” emphasizes the large numbers of people who participate in marathons. By describing many runners completing substantial distances, the author reinforces the argument that human endurance is widespread rather than limited to a handful of exceptional athletes. Choice G correctly identifies this emphasis. Choice F incorrectly suggests that the phrase is intended to compare group-running behavior across species. Choice H introduces surprise about completing long races, which is not the primary purpose of the expression. Choice J incorrectly suggests that the author is comparing the popularity of long-distance races with shorter events. The phrase primarily emphasizes the number of people capable of sustained running.

Question 33, “As it relates to the passage, one main function of the chart is to further illustrate:” The correct answer is C: “the running speeds of various large mammals, including humans, across several running styles.”

The chart compares the speeds of horses, ponies, dogs, and humans during different types of movement, including trotting, galloping, distance running, and sprinting. Choice C accurately summarizes the information displayed. Choice A incorrectly suggests that other mammals are generally faster over long distances, which contradicts the passage’s discussion of human endurance. Choice B attributes differences in running speed specifically to the number of legs, a relationship the chart does not establish. Choice D concerns how long animals can maintain particular speeds, but the chart provides speed ranges rather than durations. Choice C correctly identifies the chart’s comparative purpose.

Question 34, “Based on the passage and the chart, does the information in the chart support the passage author’s claim that both horses and dogs can, in general, easily out-sprint us by galloping (lines 56–57)?” The correct answer is J: “No, because the chart indicates that only horses, not dogs, can gallop at faster speeds than a human can sprint.”

The chart shows that horses can reach galloping speeds of approximately 11 meters per second, exceeding the speeds of some human sprinters. However, dogs’ galloping speeds reach only about 8 meters per second, while human sprinting speeds can approach 10 meters per second. Therefore, the chart does not support the claim that both animals can out-sprint humans. Choice J correctly identifies this distinction. Choices F and G incorrectly suggest that both horses and dogs can exceed human sprinting speeds. Choice H goes too far in the opposite direction by claiming that humans can out-sprint both animals, ignoring the highest speeds reached by galloping horses.

Question 35, “Compared to the average distance-running speed of wildebeests, as described in the passage, the fastest trotting speed of ponies, as depicted in the chart, is:” The correct answer is B: “somewhat slower.”

The passage states that wildebeests maintain an average distance-running speed of approximately 5.1 meters per second. According to the chart, ponies can trot at speeds up to approximately 4.4 meters per second. Since 4.4 is slightly less than 5.1, the fastest trotting speed of ponies is somewhat slower than the average distance-running speed of wildebeests. Choice B is correct. Choice A incorrectly suggests that the pony’s speed is approximately half as fast. Choice C incorrectly identifies the speeds as equal, while Choice D reverses the comparison by suggesting that ponies are faster.

Question 36, “Based on the chart, which of the following choices represents the most likely outcome in a short race between a human running at the top of the speed range for a typical jogger and a horse, pony, and dog running at their fastest trots?” The correct answer is H: “The horse would win, the pony and the human would finish close to each other, and the dog would finish last.”

The chart indicates that horses can trot at speeds approaching 6 meters per second, making them the fastest competitors in this hypothetical race. Ponies’ maximum trotting speed is approximately 4.4 meters per second, while the upper end of a typical human jogger’s speed is around 4.2 meters per second. Dogs have the lowest maximum trotting speed, at approximately 3.8 meters per second. Choice H correctly predicts the resulting order. Choice F incorrectly places the human first. Choice G exaggerates the human’s advantage over ponies and dogs, while Choice J incorrectly places the human behind all three animals.

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