Below are answer explanations to the full-length English test of the 3rd released practice ACT for the Digital ACT.

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Digital ACT Practice Test 3 English Answer Explanations

Passage 1 – “A Small Rescue”

Question 1, The writer wants to suggest that an attempt was made to keep the owls comfortable during transport. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests the use of relevant details to achieve a specific writing goal. The original passage describes the owls as nestled in a cardboard box lined with blankets and pine boughs, suggesting that the forestry workers took steps to make their journey comfortable. Choice A therefore best accomplishes the writer’s goal. Choice B describes the owls’ behavior during transport but does not establish that anyone attempted to make them comfortable. Choice C emphasizes how quickly they were transported, while Choice D focuses on their physical condition. Neither directly addresses the comfort provided during transportation.

Question 2, Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? The correct answer is F: “No Change.”

  • This question tests logical transitions. The word “though” correctly establishes a contrast between the owls’ initial condition and their subsequent improvement. Although they arrived weak and dehydrated, the birds became healthier under the narrator’s care. Choice G (“furthermore”) and Choice H (“likewise”) suggest that the second statement adds to or resembles the first, rather than contrasting with it. Choice J (“after all”) introduces a justification or explanation, which is not the relationship between these ideas. Choice F is correct because “though” clearly emphasizes the change in the owls’ condition.

Question 3, The writer wants to illustrate the contrast in the design of the two places the owls were housed. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? The correct answer is B: “a nest-sized, temperature-controlled container.”

  • This question tests the use of specific details to establish contrast. Choice B describes the owls’ first enclosure as small and temperature-controlled, creating a clear contrast with the spacious outdoor enclosure to which they were later moved. Choice A (“a refuge for very young owls”) identifies the enclosure’s purpose without describing its physical design. Choice C emphasizes its role in helping the owls recover, while Choice D simply identifies it as their first home. Neither provides the descriptive details necessary to establish a meaningful contrast between the two environments.

Question 4, Given that all the following sentences are accurate, which one provides the most effective transition from the first sentence of this paragraph to the rest of the paragraph? The correct answer is J: “The two grew stronger and healthier and began to show clear signs that they were nearly ready to be released into the wild.”

  • This question tests paragraph cohesion and transitions. The paragraph begins by describing the owls’ developing physical abilities and continues by explaining how their hunting skills and defensive behavior indicated that they were ready to survive independently. Choice J connects these ideas by introducing their increasing strength and readiness for release. Choice F discusses imprinting, which is only indirectly related to the paragraph’s focus. Choice G provides information about the owls’ adult size, while Choice H introduces the narrator’s efforts to conceal human features. Neither establishes the paragraph’s central progression from physical development to independence.

Question 5, Which choice makes the sentence or sentences most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is B: “independently, without.”

  • This question tests sentence structure and punctuation. Choice B correctly uses a comma to connect the main clause to the modifying phrase beginning with “without.” The phrase explains that the owls could survive without assistance from their mother or a wildlife rehabilitator. Choice A incorrectly uses a semicolon before “doing so without,” which is not an independent clause. Choice C also misuses a semicolon because “without a defensive mother” cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. Choice D introduces a period before “Without,” creating a sentence fragment. Choice B maintains a complete, grammatically correct sentence.

Passage 2 – “The Musical Made Modern”

Question 6, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is J: “Delete the underlined portion.”

  • This question tests conciseness and redundancy. The sentence already describes Oklahoma! as an “immediate success,” making the phrase “from the outset” unnecessary. Both expressions convey that the musical was successful from its beginning. Choice J eliminates the repetition without changing the sentence’s meaning. Choice F preserves the original redundancy, while Choice G (“from the very beginning”) simply substitutes another expression with the same meaning. Choice H (“instantly”) also repeats the idea conveyed by “immediate.” Deleting the underlined portion produces the clearest and most concise sentence.

Question 7, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is D: “Oklahoma! chose.”

  • This question tests sentence fragments and the correct construction of independent clauses. Choice D creates a complete sentence with the subject “The composers of Oklahoma!” and the main verb “chose.” The original sentence uses “who chose,” turning the verb phrase into a dependent relative clause and leaving the sentence without a main verb. Choice B (“while choosing”) and Choice C (“choosing”) also produce dependent constructions rather than complete independent clauses. Only Choice D supplies the necessary main verb to create a grammatically complete sentence.

Question 8, Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? The correct answer is H: “Instead,”.

  • This question tests logical transitions between ideas. The passage explains that traditional musicals lacked coherent plots and then describes the loosely connected songs they featured in place of a unified narrative. Choice H (“Instead”) correctly introduces what traditional musicals offered rather than an integrated storyline. Choice F (“Meanwhile”) suggests two events or developments occurring simultaneously without clearly establishing their relationship. Choice G (“Granted”) introduces a concession, which is not appropriate here. Choice J (“So far”) suggests a progression through time rather than a contrast between storytelling approaches. Choice H provides the clearest logical connection.

Question 9, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is B: “story, and everyone who appeared on stage had a single role to play.”

  • This question tests punctuation in compound sentences and the separation of subjects from verbs. Choice B correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “and” to connect two independent clauses. It also avoids placing unnecessary commas between “everyone who appeared on stage” and the verb “had,” or between “play” and the phrase “in the drama.” Choice A inserts both of those unnecessary commas. Choice C omits the comma separating the independent clauses and incorrectly separates the subject from its verb. Choice D also omits the necessary comma before “and” and places an unnecessary comma after “play.” Choice B is the only grammatically correct construction.

Question 10, Which choice is clearest and most precise in context? The correct answer is G: “reshaped.”

  • This question tests precision of word choice. The passage describes how Oklahoma! fundamentally changed the structure and conventions of American musical theater. Choice G (“reshaped”) accurately conveys this lasting transformation. Choice F (“redecorated”) generally refers to changing the appearance of a physical space rather than transforming an artistic tradition. Choice H (“renovated”) similarly suggests physical improvements to a building or structure. Choice J (“redrafted”) refers more specifically to revising a written document. “Reshaped” best captures the musical’s broad influence on American theater.

Passage 3 – “Schmandt-Besserat and Ancient Accounting”

Question 11, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is B: “excavation of the ancient city of Uruk,”.

  • This question tests correct comma placement. Choice B maintains the essential phrase “excavation of the ancient city of Uruk” without interrupting it with unnecessary punctuation. The comma after “Uruk” appropriately introduces the descriptive phrase “located in present-day Iraq.” Choice A incorrectly places a comma between “excavation” and the phrase identifying what was excavated. Choice C retains that unnecessary comma while omitting the comma needed before “located.” Choice D improperly separates “city” from its identifying name, “Uruk.” Choice B preserves the natural grammatical structure of the sentence.

Question 12, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is J: “clay objects, each measuring only a.”

  • This question tests conciseness and redundancy. Choice J removes the unnecessary word “shaped” while preserving the essential description of the clay objects and their size. The following sentence already explains that the objects were molded into specific shapes, so describing them as “shaped” beforehand is repetitive. Choice F retains that redundancy. Choice G adds the phrases “each one” and “by itself,” unnecessarily repeating the idea that the measurement applies to individual objects. Choice H also uses the redundant expressions “each one” and “only a mere.” Choice J communicates the information most efficiently.

Question 13, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests punctuation when introducing examples. The phrase “such as” correctly introduces examples of the shapes into which the clay objects were molded. Choice A requires no additional punctuation because “cones, discs, and cylinders” is integrated naturally into the sentence. Choice B incorrectly combines a colon with “for example” and an unnecessary comma. Choice C also introduces an unnecessary colon and awkwardly uses “for example” without appropriate separation from the examples. Choice D places an unnecessary comma after “such as,” incorrectly separating the introductory phrase from the examples that complete it.

Question 14, If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the essay would primarily lose a detail: The correct answer is H: “emphasizing the extent of Schmandt-Besserat’s search for the clay objects.”

  • This question tests the rhetorical purpose of supporting details. The underlined information explains that Schmandt-Besserat traveled to museums across four continents while cataloging the objects. This geographical detail emphasizes how extensive her research was, making Choice H correct. Choice F is incorrect because the detail does not explain her professional connections or how she gained access to particular museums. Choice G incorrectly interprets the statement as evidence about the expansion of archaeological sites and museums. Choice J is also unsupported because the passage provides no information about how her research was financed.

Question 15, Which choice is clearest and most logical in context? The correct answer is D: “if.”

  • This question tests logical relationships expressed through conjunctions. The sentence describes the one-to-one counting method used by the people of Uruk: if someone possessed five jars of oil, that person would have five corresponding tokens. Choice D (“if”) correctly establishes this hypothetical condition. Choice A (“so that”) incorrectly suggests that possessing the jars was the purpose of the counting method. Choice B (“unless”) introduces an exception that reverses the intended relationship. Choice C (“since”) suggests that the situation is an established fact or explanation rather than a hypothetical example. Choice D communicates the conditional relationship accurately.

Question 16, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “tokens were.”

  • This question tests pronoun clarity and sentence structure. Choice H clearly identifies the tokens as the objects exchanged for record-keeping purposes when the people of Uruk conducted business transactions. Choice F (“some were”) introduces ambiguity because “some” could refer to the goods being bought, sold, and traded rather than the tokens. Choice G (“an equivalent was”) is vague and does not clearly identify what was exchanged. Choice J (“it was”) uses a singular pronoun without a clear antecedent. Choice H eliminates ambiguity by explicitly naming the objects involved.

Question 17, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is D: “the proto-cuneiform on the Uruk tablets resembled.”

  • This question tests sentence structure and the construction of dependent clauses. Choice D creates a complete clause following “Schmandt-Besserat realized that,” clearly stating that the proto-cuneiform markings resembled indentations made by the clay tokens. Choice A incorrectly includes “with,” disrupting the grammatical relationship between the subject and its verb. Choice B introduces “which resembled,” creating a relative clause but leaving the larger clause incomplete. Choice C uses “resembling,” a participle that cannot serve as the necessary main verb. Choice D correctly establishes a subject and finite verb within the clause.

Question 18, Which transition word or phrase is most logical in context? The correct answer is F: “No Change.”

  • This question tests logical transitions and cause-and-effect relationships. The phrase “In doing so” correctly connects Schmandt-Besserat’s research on tokens and tablets with its broader contribution to archaeological understanding. Her discoveries helped explain the origins of counting, accounting, and writing. Choice G (“Coincidentally”) suggests that this contribution was an unrelated coincidence rather than a direct result of her work. Choice H (“For example”) incorrectly introduces the broader contribution as an illustration of her preceding actions. Choice J (“Otherwise”) implies an alternative or hypothetical outcome. The original transition most accurately communicates the relationship between her discoveries and their significance.

Question 19, Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests tone and clarity. The phrase “better understand the origins” is direct, precise, and appropriate for an informative essay about archaeological research. Choice B (“in grasping the conclusion she made regarding the onset”) is unnecessarily complicated and awkward. Choice C (“forge a greater understanding of the onset”) is overly elaborate and less natural than the original wording. Choice D (“get it when it comes down to the start”) is too informal and conversational for the essay’s academic tone. Choice A maintains the passage’s professional style without sacrificing clarity.

Question 20, Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to offer an overview of the artifacts found at a specific archaeological site and the significance of those artifacts. Would this essay accomplish that purpose? The correct answer is H: “No, because it instead details Schmandt-Besserat’s role in understanding how the tokens and tablets found at Uruk were used together.”

  • This question tests identification of an essay’s primary purpose. Although the passage describes artifacts found at Uruk, its central focus is Schmandt-Besserat’s research and how she established the relationship between clay tokens and early writing. Choice H correctly identifies this narrower focus. Choice F incorrectly suggests that her interpretation of the tablets helped archaeologists locate tokens, rather than explain their purpose. Choice G overemphasizes museum interest, which is only briefly mentioned. Choice J is incorrect because the essay does not provide a broad overview of Schmandt-Besserat’s career; it concentrates on a particular discovery and its implications.

Passage 4 – “The Iron Man of Charleston”

Question 21, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “When nine-year-old.”

  • This question tests sentence structure and the correct use of introductory dependent clauses. Choice C creates a grammatically complete sentence beginning with “When nine-year-old Philip Simmons first passed the busy blacksmith’s shop,” followed by the independent clause “he was captivated.” Choice A incorrectly joins the description of Simmons’s first encounter with the shop to another independent clause using only a comma. Choice B introduces an unnecessary separate pronoun, “He,” before identifying Philip Simmons, creating an awkward and incoherent construction. Choice D also leaves two independent clauses improperly joined by a comma. Choice C establishes a clear relationship between the event and Simmons’s reaction.

Question 22, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is H: “passed.”

  • This question tests correct word usage, particularly the distinction between “past” and “passed.” Choice H replaces the incorrect phrase “walked passed” with the verb “passed,” correctly describing Simmons moving by the blacksmith’s shop. Choice F retains the original error because “passed” cannot function as the preposition following “walked.” Choice G (“past over”) combines directional words unnecessarily and incorrectly. Choice J (“past by”) is similarly redundant and grammatically inappropriate in this construction. Choice H supplies the correct verb without unnecessary additional wording.

Question 23, The writer wants to emphasize Simmons’s eagerness to become a blacksmith. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests the use of vivid language to establish characterization. The phrase “plunged in” conveys Simmons’s enthusiasm and willingness to immerse himself immediately in learning blacksmithing. Choice A is therefore the most effective. Choice B (“appreciated the opportunity”) communicates gratitude but does not necessarily suggest eagerness. Choice C (“was able to start right away”) emphasizes the timing of his apprenticeship rather than his attitude toward it. Choice D (“then began the job”) simply describes what happened next without expressing enthusiasm. The original wording most directly supports the writer’s goal.

Question 24, Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph most logical? The correct answer is G: “1, 3, 2.”

  • This question tests logical sequencing within a paragraph. Sentence 1 introduces the problem Simmons faced: declining demand for traditional blacksmiths. Sentence 3 then explains the causes of that decline, including the increasing use of automobiles and factory-produced metal parts. Finally, Sentence 2 describes Simmons’s response to these changes by becoming an artist of iron. Choice G creates a clear problem-explanation-solution structure. Choice F introduces his adaptation before fully explaining the problem. Choice H begins with his response before establishing the challenge, while Choice J places the explanation before introducing the problem and ends with the problem rather than his solution.

Question 25, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “Charleston: hundreds of gates, fences, and railings.”

  • This question tests the proper use of colons between independent clauses. The first clause states that decorative ironwork was prominent in Charleston, while the second provides examples of that ironwork. Choice C correctly uses a colon to introduce the explanation and retains the complete subject “hundreds of gates, fences, and railings” without unnecessary punctuation. Choice A creates a comma splice by joining two independent clauses with only a comma. Choice B correctly introduces a colon but incorrectly places a comma between the compound subject and its verb, “featured.” Choice D omits the punctuation necessary to separate the two clauses.

Question 26, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “is not.”

  • This question tests subject–verb agreement. The phrase “Bending and beating iron into graceful shapes” functions as a singular activity or process in the sentence, so it requires the singular verb “is.” Choice J correctly produces the statement that this work “is not easy to do.” Choice F (“are never”), Choice G (“have never been”), and Choice H (“aren’t”) all use plural verb constructions that do not agree with the singular activity being described. The singular pronoun “it” later in the sentence further reinforces that the writer is treating the process as one activity. Choice J maintains grammatical agreement.

Question 27, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “who,”.

  • This question tests the correct use of relative pronouns. The relative pronoun refers to Simmons’s mentor and functions as the subject of the clause “who, like Simmons, was African American.” Because the pronoun is performing the action or serving as the subject, “who” is required. Choice A incorrectly uses “whom,” which functions as an object rather than a subject. Choice B (“whom himself”) is grammatically incorrect and adds an unnecessary reflexive pronoun. Choice D (“he”) cannot introduce the relative clause in this construction. Choice C correctly introduces the descriptive clause while maintaining proper punctuation.

Question 28, The writer is considering adding the phrase “—such as the first animals ever to appear in the city’s ironwork—” at this point. If the writer were to add this phrase here, the essay would primarily gain an example of: The correct answer is G: “details Simmons introduced to Charleston’s ironwork that were likely inspired by an ironworking tradition originating in West Africa.”

  • This question tests the purpose of supporting details. The proposed phrase offers a specific example of the innovative elements Simmons incorporated into his ironwork, which the passage connects to his exposure to West African artistic traditions. Choice G correctly identifies this relationship. Choice F incorrectly suggests that the elements were already common in Charleston before Simmons introduced them. Choice H overlooks the passage’s explanation of West African influence by treating the designs as entirely Simmons’s own invention. Choice J is unsupported because the passage does not identify which animals were most commonly represented in West African ironwork.

Question 29, Which choice is clearest and most logical in context? The correct answer is B: “since.”

  • This question tests logical relationships between clauses. The sentence explains that Simmons encouraged his apprentices to create unique designs because nature itself does not produce two identical leaves. Choice B (“since”) correctly establishes this causal relationship. Choice A (“although”) introduces a contrast, suggesting that nature’s variation would somehow conflict with the apprentices’ need for originality. Choice C (“until”) creates an inappropriate time relationship. Choice D (“so”) reverses the intended relationship by suggesting that the apprentices’ actions explain nature’s behavior. Choice B clearly communicates that nature’s variation provides the reasoning behind Simmons’s instruction.

Question 30, Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to discuss an artist that not only overcame a particular obstacle but possibly benefited from it. Would this essay achieve that purpose? The correct answer is F: “Yes, because it explains how a declining market for blacksmiths led Simmons to discover his talent for decorative ironwork.”

  • This question tests recognition of an essay’s overall purpose. The passage describes how the declining demand for traditional blacksmithing threatened Simmons’s career but ultimately prompted him to pursue decorative ironwork, where he became a celebrated artist. Choice F correctly identifies how the obstacle contributed to his later success. Choice G incorrectly suggests that Simmons struggled primarily with learning decorative ironwork, whereas the main obstacle was an economic change in his profession. Choice H overlooks the importance of this obstacle and its effect on his career. Choice J focuses too narrowly on stylistic comparisons rather than the development of Simmons’s artistic career.

Passage 5 – “Zadar’s Sea Organ”

Question 31, The writer wants to suggest that the people on the steps aren’t too close together. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? The correct answer is C: “sprinkled.”

  • This question tests precise word choice and connotation. Choice C (“sprinkled”) suggests that people are scattered across the steps with space between them, creating the impression of a relaxed, uncrowded setting. Choice A (“awash”) suggests that the steps are filled with people, implying greater density. Choice B (“thronged”) specifically describes a large crowd gathered closely together. Choice D (“teeming”) similarly suggests that the area is overflowing with people. Only “sprinkled” conveys the relatively sparse distribution that the writer wants to emphasize.

Question 32, Which choice most effectively introduces the main focus of the paragraph? The correct answer is J: “lovely, but I haven’t come to look; I’m here to listen.”

  • This question tests effective topic sentences and paragraph focus. The paragraph primarily describes the narrator’s experience listening to the Sea Organ, including the unusual quality and rhythm of its music. Choice J establishes this focus by contrasting the visual beauty of the setting with the narrator’s real purpose: listening. Choice F mentions the scenery without clearly introducing the importance of sound. Choice G continues emphasizing visual beauty by describing sunlight reflecting off the ocean. Choice H shifts toward exploring the city rather than listening to the instrument. Choice J most effectively prepares readers for the sensory descriptions that follow.

Question 33, Which choice is clearest and most logical in context? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests the logical relationship between ideas. The original phrase “Despite years studying” establishes that the narrator remains surprised by the Sea Organ’s sound even after spending considerable time learning about its design. Choice A correctly emphasizes this unexpected reaction. Choice B (“Given how many years I’ve studied”) suggests that the narrator’s prior knowledge explains the surprise rather than making it unexpected. Choice C (“In the years I’ve spent studying”) introduces an awkward time relationship that does not clearly express the contrast. Choice D (“Due to years of studying”) incorrectly establishes a causal relationship between the years of study and the surprise. The original phrasing best communicates the intended concession.

Question 34, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is G: “boat—with the lower and higher notes.”

  • This question tests the punctuation of explanatory phrases. The sentence compares the music’s rhythm to the rocking of a boat, then expands upon that comparison by describing the alternating volume of the lower and higher notes. Choice G correctly uses an em dash to introduce this elaboration and allows the phrase “with the lower and higher notes alternating in volume” to remain uninterrupted. Choice F incorrectly combines a comma after “boat” with a dash after “notes,” disrupting the sentence’s structure. Choice H inserts an unnecessary comma after “notes,” separating the noun from its modifier. Choice J places the dash after “notes,” breaking the explanatory phrase in the wrong location.

Question 35, Which of the following accurate statements, if added here, would most effectively introduce the paragraph? The correct answer is C: “The Sea Organ is ‘played’ by waves.”

  • This question tests topic sentences and paragraph development. The paragraph explains how waves push air through pipes beneath the steps, producing the Sea Organ’s distinctive sounds. Choice C directly introduces this mechanism by identifying waves as the force that plays the instrument. Choice A provides the year the instrument began operating, which is not developed in the paragraph. Choice B describes the quality of the sounds rather than explaining how they are produced. Choice D introduces information about the design’s awards, which is unrelated to the paragraph’s technical explanation. Choice C most accurately previews the information that follows.

Question 36, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is F: “No Change.”

  • This question tests subject–verb agreement. The grammatical subject is the gerund phrase “creating resonant, harmonious chords,” which functions as a singular activity. Therefore, the singular verb “requires” is correct. Choice F preserves this agreement. Choice G (“have always required”) incorrectly uses a plural verb form, as does Choice H (“require maintaining”). Choice J (“do require”) also uses a plural auxiliary verb that does not agree with the singular subject. The original sentence correctly treats the act of creating harmonious chords as one process requiring constant control over airflow.

Question 37, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is B: “Organ’s design—from the pipes’”.

  • This question tests singular and plural possessive nouns. The passage discusses the design of one Sea Organ, so “Organ’s” must be singular possessive. However, the instrument contains multiple pipes, making “pipes’” the correct plural possessive when referring to their spacing. Choice B correctly uses both forms. Choice A incorrectly uses the singular possessive “pipe’s,” suggesting the spacing of only one pipe. Choices C and D incorrectly use “Organs’,” indicating possession by multiple organs. Choice D also retains the incorrect singular possessive for the pipes. Choice B accurately reflects both relationships.

Question 38, Which choice best provides a reason for the sudden change in volume that the narrator describes later in the sentence? The correct answer is F: “No Change.”

  • This question tests cause-and-effect relationships. The phrase “In the wake of a passing barge” explains why the Sea Organ’s volume suddenly increases: the barge creates waves that force more air through the organ’s pipes. Choice F therefore provides a clear physical cause for the change. Choice G describes the narrator enjoying the sun and sea air, which does not explain the instrument’s behavior. Choice H focuses on the narrator’s enjoyment of the music rather than the cause of the volume increase. Choice J (“Without any real warning”) emphasizes the unexpected change but offers no explanation for why it occurred.

Question 39, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “much louder, their.”

  • This question tests the distinction between adjectives and adverbs, as well as correct pronoun usage. The verb “grow” functions as a linking verb in this sentence, so it requires the adjective “louder” to describe the pipes’ changing sound. Choice C correctly uses “much louder” and the possessive pronoun “their” to introduce the pipes’ higher pitches. Choice A incorrectly uses the adverb “loudly.” Choice B uses the awkward comparative “more loud” and incorrectly substitutes “they’re” for the possessive “their.” Choice D correctly uses “louder” but retains the incorrect “they’re,” which means “they are” and does not fit the sentence.

Question 40, Which choice makes the sentence or sentences most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is J: “waves, calming.”

  • This question tests sentence fragments and participial phrases. Choice J correctly combines the description of the Sea Organ’s tones with the participial phrase “calming my thoughts and buoying my spirits,” which explains their effect on the narrator. Choice F separates this phrase into its own sentence, creating a fragment because it lacks an independent subject and finite verb. Choice G incorrectly places a semicolon before the dependent clause beginning with “while.” Choice H similarly places a semicolon before the infinitive phrase “to calm,” which cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. Choice J creates one grammatically complete and coherent sentence.

Passage 6 – “Make Our Blocks Super”

Question 41, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests punctuation and parallel structure. The original sentence uses an em dash to contrast the excitement and opportunity of city living with its potential drawbacks, including noise pollution and limited green space. The repeated preposition “with” reinforces this parallel construction. Choice B incorrectly places a colon directly after the preposition “with,” separating it from its object. Choice C similarly inserts an unnecessary comma after “with” and misuses a colon before the contrasting list. Choice D incorrectly uses a semicolon to separate two phrases that are not independent clauses. Choice A preserves the grammatically correct contrast.

Question 42, Which of the following choices most effectively leads the reader from the previous sentence to the argument that follows in the rest of the essay? The correct answer is G: “But urban living doesn’t have to be defined by these drawbacks.”

  • This question tests transitions between an introduction and an essay’s central argument. The writer first identifies problems associated with city living before arguing that superblocks could help address them. Choice G creates a logical bridge by acknowledging those problems while introducing the possibility of overcoming them. Choice F focuses on people who tolerate urban drawbacks rather than proposing solutions. Choice H merely restates that the problems exist without advancing the argument. Choice J introduces the unrelated idea that different cities have different drawbacks. Choice G most effectively prepares readers for the proposed solution.

Question 43, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is D: “blocks in which most automobile traffic is prohibited.”

  • This question tests restrictive clauses and unnecessary punctuation. The phrase “in which most automobile traffic is prohibited from interior streets” defines a fundamental characteristic of a superblock. Because this information is essential to understanding the noun it modifies, it should not be separated by commas. Choice D correctly integrates the clause without unnecessary punctuation. Choice A incorrectly places a comma after “prohibited,” separating the verb from the phrase “from interior streets.” Choice B introduces unnecessary commas around parts of the defining clause, including between the subject and verb. Choice C also incorrectly separates the essential clause and places a comma after “prohibited.”

Question 44, Given that all the choices are accurate, which one provides the most relevant support for the writer’s main argument? The correct answer is G: “An analysis by the Barcelona Public Health Agency showed that by reducing local traffic and inviting people to spend time outside, superblocks have led to quieter, more social neighborhoods.”

  • This question tests the relevance and effectiveness of supporting evidence. The essay argues that American cities should implement superblocks to improve urban living conditions. Choice G provides direct evidence that superblocks have reduced traffic-related noise and encouraged social interaction, addressing problems identified in the introduction. Choice F discusses plans for additional superblocks but does not establish their benefits. Choice H provides information about Barcelona’s shortage of green space without showing that superblocks improve the situation. Choice J demonstrates that other cities could accommodate superblocks, but it does not directly establish their positive effects on residents.

Question 45, Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s tone? The correct answer is D: “overcome potential obstacles to.”

  • This question tests tone and precision. The essay uses a professional, persuasive style to discuss urban planning and the benefits of superblocks. Choice D (“overcome potential obstacles to”) is clear, formal, and appropriately measured, acknowledging challenges without exaggerating their severity. Choice A (“tackle any hurdles connected with”) is comparatively informal and suggests that every possible difficulty can be resolved. Choice B (“transcend impediments that may arise with respect to”) is unnecessarily elaborate and awkward. Choice C (“cope with issues that could pop up around”) is too conversational for the essay’s formal tone. Choice D best maintains the writer’s style.

Question 46, Which choice is clearest and most logical in context? The correct answer is H: “though.”

  • This question tests concessive transitions. The sentence acknowledges that implementing superblocks would involve costs but explains that these expenses could remain relatively low because major road reconstruction would not be necessary. Choice H (“though”) correctly establishes this contrast. Choice F (“when”) introduces a time relationship rather than a concession. Choice G (“just as”) suggests a comparison or simultaneous occurrence that does not fit the argument. Choice J (“unless”) introduces a condition that would incorrectly imply that the existence of costs changes whether substantial reconstruction is required. Choice H accurately conveys the contrast between potential expenses and limited investment requirements.

Question 47, Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically acceptable? The correct answer is C: “officials should work closely with residents.”

  • This question tests sentence fragments and independent clauses. The sentence begins with the introductory phrase “Finally, to address logistics such as parking and deliveries,” which must be followed by a complete independent clause. Choice C supplies the subject “officials” and the main verb phrase “should work,” creating a complete sentence that clearly explains what officials need to do. Choice A uses the participial phrase “working closely with residents” but lacks a main verb. Choice B introduces a relative clause beginning with “who” without completing the main clause. Choice D begins with “as,” making the remainder dependent and leaving the sentence incomplete. Only Choice C creates a complete sentence.

Question 48, Suppose the writer had intended for this paragraph to appeal to the reader’s emotions by depicting how neighborhoods would benefit from superblocks. Would this paragraph accomplish that purpose? The correct answer is J: “No, because it instead uses reasoning to respond to some potential counterarguments to installing superblocks.”

  • This question tests rhetorical purpose and methods of persuasion. The paragraph primarily addresses practical concerns about implementing superblocks, including street layouts, financial costs, parking, and deliveries. Rather than appealing to emotions or depicting improved neighborhood life, it uses logical reasoning to explain why these challenges are manageable. Choice J correctly identifies this approach. Choice F incorrectly suggests that the paragraph describes positive pedestrian experiences. Choice G incorrectly claims that it presents an idealized neighborhood for readers to imagine. Choice H recognizes the use of logic but misidentifies the argument as being about cities of a particular size, which is not the paragraph’s focus.

Question 49, Which choice is least redundant in context? The correct answer is A: “No Change.”

  • This question tests conciseness and redundancy. The original phrase “are piloting similar designs” efficiently communicates that other European cities are experimenting with superblocks based on Barcelona’s example. Choice A preserves this concise wording. Choice B unnecessarily repeats the idea of Barcelona’s influence, which is already established by “Inspired by Barcelona’s success,” and substitutes “comparable” for the equally clear “similar.” Choice C redundantly combines “comparable” and “similar,” two words with nearly identical meanings. Choice D adds “on the continent,” unnecessarily restating the information already conveyed by “European cities.” Choice A communicates the idea without repetition.

Question 50, The writer is considering adding the sentence “One resident notes that the areas around superblocks ‘feel safe, less noisy, and more designed for people.’” If the writer were to add the sentence, it would most logically be placed at: The correct answer is G: “Point B.”

  • This question tests logical sentence placement. The proposed quotation provides firsthand evidence that residents appreciate the improvements associated with superblocks. It fits best immediately after the sentence explaining that Barcelona residents have embraced superblocks and reported greater satisfaction with their neighborhoods. Choice G places the quotation at Point B, directly supporting that claim. Point A would introduce the quotation before establishing the broader context of resident satisfaction. Point C would interrupt the transition to other European cities and the argument for American adoption. Point D would place the example after the essay’s concluding statement, weakening the conclusion’s effectiveness.

Additional ACT practice test answer explanations